'Is the following statement true? If g = O(f) and h = O(f) then g = O(h) for all f,g,h
Does that statement follow Big O transitivity? I am new to Big O notation and Time Complexity so I am struggling with the basics. Any help would be greatly appreciated!
Solution 1:[1]
Think of the counterexample:
f(n) = n3
g(n) = n2
h(n) = n.
Indeed, g = O(f) and h = O(f). But is g = O(h)?
Sources
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Source: Stack Overflow
| Solution | Source |
|---|---|
| Solution 1 | Berthur |